How did it happen!!!!!!
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How did it happen!!!!!!
Can someone please tell me how
Y (x,t) became y (x)f (t).{I am using y for psy}
Y (x,t) became y (x)f (t).{I am using y for psy}
Sreejith A Nair Posts : 35
Join date : 20160803
Age : 20
Re: How did it happen!!!!!!
y(x,t) is a function of x and t so we can write it as a combination two funtion of each variable x and t
The Confused Guy (O.o)? Posts : 30
Join date : 20160803
Location : IISER Pune
Re: How did it happen!!!!!!
But it need not always be a product of the two.
Sreejith A Nair Posts : 35
Join date : 20160803
Age : 20
Re: How did it happen!!!!!!
Yes, you're right. But it's only a particular solution. If you add all possible solutions in this form, it's again mathematically a solution! And that's really the most general solution that incorporates all possible energies the electron can have!
Dinesh PR Posts : 6
Join date : 20160808
Re: How did it happen!!!!!!
As electrons are considered standing waves , we can do the above.
schrodinger Posts : 7
Join date : 20160804
Re: How did it happen!!!!!!
These pics are from Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, D. J. Griffiths, 2nd Ed. The first two explanations are physical, and the first was already discussed in the class. I'm not clear regarding the 3rd explanation, but 2nd seems promising. Also, the expectation value is a fancy term for average of a certain quantity in QM. The parts are as follows:
Part 1:
Part 2:
Part 3:
Part 1:
Part 2:
Part 3:
Confusions allowed Posts : 15
Join date : 20160804
Age : 20
Re: How did it happen!!!!!!
One thing that I missed, to explain what is Normalization, which is mentioned in the text. Well, we do know that :
The infinite integral ∫Ψ(x, t)^2 dx has to be 1, as the electron is somewhere. But, the found solution may not give you that. Therefore, we devise a new Ψ' = AΨ, where A is a complex constant. We do know that Ψ appears on both the sides of the wave function, so one gets the same Physics as before. This can be used to get the total probability of finding the electron to be 1, which is called as Normalization.
The infinite integral ∫Ψ(x, t)^2 dx has to be 1, as the electron is somewhere. But, the found solution may not give you that. Therefore, we devise a new Ψ' = AΨ, where A is a complex constant. We do know that Ψ appears on both the sides of the wave function, so one gets the same Physics as before. This can be used to get the total probability of finding the electron to be 1, which is called as Normalization.
Confusions allowed Posts : 15
Join date : 20160804
Age : 20
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